...
Hats off to you for even trying to go down that forensic route.
I remember trying to do something similar with the WGII AR4 drafts in the wake of the Himalyan Glaciers nonsense. Boy was that depressing.
Thanks Bill! I agree it is a painful ride ... but sometimes I just can't help myself. Oh dear
For what it is worth, I continued my inquiry and here is what I found:
- I searched the full AR5 WGI report for the phrase "five consecutive". The search came up with 4 hits, 2 in the SP (Summary for Policymakers), 2 in the TS (Technical summary). All 4 are linked to the definition of ice-free Arctic.
- Then I looked into the drafts of the TS. No sign of the phrase "five consecutive" - no word in the comments.
- The only place where this changes are documented is the "
List of Substantive Edits ", for instance p. 9 as "replace "(sea ice extent less than 10^6 km2)" by "(sea ice extent less than 10^6 km2 for at least five consecutive years)".
Interestingly enough there is no (scientific) reason given to why this change was made (Seems strange for the TS, that should be more "scientific" as the SP)
Summary: So for now it seems that the addendum to the ice-free definition "for at least five consecutive years" was first made in the "
Approved Summary for Policymakers (IPCC-XXXVI/Doc.3)". Again no reason to why they did change it. For some reason, this definition made its way into the Technical Summary. Why remains a mystery - at least to me.
So while I generally agree with Peters sentiment this is starting to look a bit odd for a supposedly transparent report. At least I am not sure that the reason behind the change is purely scientific.
If I remember correctly, the Summary for Policymakers is the most political part of the report (as every UN-member state has to agree on the exact wording?). Now the addition to the ice-free definition, it appears, was introduced in exactly this political part. Later it was added to the more scientific TS, but without any explanation (by the looks of it).
And why "five consecutive years"? This is - at least to my understanding - a more rigid threshold as a five year running mean (a sequence of 0.9/1.5/0.9/0.5/0.8 would make the second but not the first). If it is true that in the SP all parties have to agree on every single word, a loose wording does not seem very likely ... Honi soit qui mal y pense
It would be really great if someone with more insight could clarify this for us.